MEDICOLOGY: PHARMACOLOGY QUIZZES 03 | Multiple Choice Questions| Medical Exam Preparations

Thursday, January 13, 2022

PHARMACOLOGY QUIZZES 03 | Multiple Choice Questions| Medical Exam Preparations

01. Ca+ channel blockers belong to one of the following CLASS of Antiarrhythmic drugs?
A. CLASS I 
B. CLASS II 
C. CLASS III 
D. CLASS IV 

Answer: D. CLASS IV 

02. A drug that acts as a laxative is one of the following?
A. Bumetanide
B. Furosemide 
C. Magnesium hydroxide  
D. Sulbactam
E. A & B

Answer: C. Magnesium hydroxide 

03. Which one of the following drugs belongs to the H2 histamine receptor blocker?
A. Torsemide
B. Atorvastatin
C. Nizatidine 
D. Ezetimibe
E. Indanyl carbenicillin 

Answer: C. Nizatidine 


05. Which of the following drug is a part of proton pump inhibitors?
A. Mannitol 
B. Rabeprazole
C. Acetazolamide 
D. Furosemide 
E. A & B

Answer: B. Rabeprazole

06. Butoconazole belongs to the class of the following drugs?
A. Antiviral 
B. Antipyretic 
C. Antiprotozoal
D. Antibiotics 
E. Antifungal  

Answer: E. Antifungal

07. A drug that acts as a laxative is one of the following?
A. Bumetanide
B. Furosemide 
C. Lactulose
D. Sulbactam
E. A & B

Answer: C. Lactulose

08. Which of the following statements about ACh release and deactivation is true?
A. Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitors, such as pyridostigmine, are not effective in the treatment of       myasthenia gravis, because patients with myasthenia gravis have no cholinergic nerve terminals to         release ACh
B. ACh release is blocked by the toxin associated with clostridium tetani
C. MAO inhibitors are important in the treatment of depression because they inhibit the breakdown of         ACh into its constituents acetic acid and choline
D. The influx of Na+ into the depolarized axon terminal is a prerequisite for the release of stored ACh
E. Uptake of ACh into the presynaptic receptor is the most important mechanism in terminating the ACh  signal

Answer: B. ACh release is blocked by the toxin associated with clostridium tetani

09. Generally, Passive diffusion of Water-soluble drugs inside the cell membrane occurs by one of the following processes?
A. Readily move due to lipid solubility
B. Penetrate through aqueous pores
C. Readily move across by active transport
D. Readily move across by facilitated diffusion

Answer: B. Penetrate through aqueous pores


10. Terbinafine(Allylamine antifungal) blood levels decreased by the following drug?
A. Cimetidine
B. Griseofulvin
C. Rifampin
D. Caspofungin

Answer: C. Rifampin
Te

11. Which of the following drug is the Antidote to Isoniazid?
A. N-acetyl-cysteine
B. Amyl Nitrate
C. Digibind
D. Pyridoxine 

Answer: D. Pyridoxine (vitamin b6)
Dose: 1g per gram ingested or empiric dosing of 5g IV bolus 
Child: 1g per gram ingested or empiric dosing of 75mg/kg IV bolus up to 5g


12. Which one of the following drugs is used to treat constipation?
A. Alendronate
B. Metamucil
C. Sevelamer  
D. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate 
E. A & B

Answer: B. Metamucil

13. Which one of the following macrolide drugs has a short half-life of 2 hours?
A. Clarithromycin
B. Azithromycin
C. Telithromycin
D. Erythromycin


Answer: D. Erythromycin

14. Bleeding and thrombocytopenia are adverse effects of one of the following drugs?
A. Heparin
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Aprotinin 
D. Vitamin K


Answer: A. Heparin (long-term use causes osteoporosis)
Unfractionated Heparin anticoagulant effect is monitored either by 
A. Partial thromboplastin time (aPPT)
B. Anti-Xa levels 
C. Institution-specific goal ranges 
While the Warfarin anticoagulant effect is monitored via
A. International Normalized ratio (INR)


15. Which one of the following H² receptor antagonists reduces 50% gastric acid secretion approximately when a total daily dose of 1000mg is used?
A. Cimetidine
B. Ranitidine
C. Famotidine
D. Nizatidine

Answer: A. Cimetidine

16. Metformin is an effective drug for one of the following options of diseases?
A. Diabetes Mellitus
B. Polycystic ovary syndrome
C. Achalasia
D. A  & B 
E. A & C 

Answer: D. A & B 

17. When the level of prostacyclin is decreased then the binding of prostacyclin to platelet receptor is also decreased resulting in?
A. Increase level of intracellular cAMP
B. Lower level of intracellular cAMP
C. Increase the level of Ca++
D. Decrease the level of Ca++
E. Both B & C

Answer: E. Both B & C

18. Which of the following drug has an irreversible and non-competitive block, and to overcome this block by this drug, the body synthesizes new adrenoceptors?
A. Phenoxybenzamine
B. Acebutolol
C. Tamsulosin
D. Doxacurium
E. Timolol

Answer: A. phenoxybenzamine

19. Which one of the following drugs is activated by a heme enzyme mycobacterial catalase-peroxidase (KatG)?
A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid
C. Rifabutin 
D. Pyrazinamide

Answer: B. Isoniazid

20. A drug that inhibits the ergosterol synthesis causing disruption of membrane function and Increase permeability?
A. Flucytosine
B. Amphotericin B
C. Ketoconazole
D. Nystatin

Answer: C. Ketoconazole (Imidazole COMET-K)
Ketoconazole inhibits the C-14 Alpha-demethylase enzyme leading to the blockage of the demethylation of lanosterol to ergosterol a part of the fungal membrane. this inhibition disrupts the membrane structure and function.
Imidazole (COMETK) and Triazoles (FITVIP) inhibit lanosterol 14à demethylase enzyme required to convert lanosterol into ergosterol.

21. Which of the following statements about Griseofulvin (fungistatic) is wrong?
A. Produce from Penicillium griseofulvin 
B. Deposit in skin & bound to keratin 
C. Inhibit mitotic spindle
D. Available in IV & IM form
E. Has vasodilatory activity

Answer: D. Available in IV & IM
Only available in oral form also used in Raynaud disease and gout.

22. Griseofulvin interaction that increases the metabolism of the following drug leading to decreased prothrombin time?
A. Barbiturates 
B. Warfarin 
C. Alcohol 
D. Oral contraceptives 

Answer: B. Warfarin 

23. A disease caused by the Variola Virus spread by aerosol or direct contact with infected persons or fluids, fever, and myalgia before rash onset?
A. Anthrax 
B. Small Pox
C. Plague
D. Botulism 
E. Tularaemia 

Answer: B. Small Pox 
Symptoms: Fever and myalgia then rash onset, Postules form, then scabs form and fall leaving pitted scars.
Treatment: No specific treatment. A live virus vaccine of a vaccina virus is preventive for close contact. But vaccines within 4 days of exposure may prevent or lessen disease.

24. A drug used to control riot and tear gases is the following?
A. Chloroacetophenone 
B. Chloropicrin 
C. Bromobenzylcyanide
D. Dibenzoxapine
E. All of these 

Answer: E. All of these 
One more is used for lacrimation 2-chlorobenzalmalononitrite gas.

25. A disease caused by Bacillus anthracis a gram-positive spore forming rod?
A. Anthrax 
B. Small Pox
C. Plague
D. Botulism 
E. Tularaemia 

Answer: A. Anthrax 
3 forms: 
Cutaneous: begin from small papule and progress to a vesicle in 1-2 days, followed by a necrotic and painless ulcer 
Inhalation: initially resemble a viral illness with a sore throat, fever, malaise, productive cough, and chest discomfort leading to respiratory failure and shock, meningitis developed  
Gastrointestinal: Severe abdominal or oropharyngeal distress followed by fever and signs of septicemia, bloody vomit, and diarrhea.

26. The following changes occur in pregnancy affecting absorption?
A. Reduced gastrointestinal motility 
B. Increased gastric pH
C. Increased pulmonary alveolar drug uptake
D. A & B
E. All of these 

Answer: E. All of these 
A. option is to allow better absorption of nutrients to the fetus. 


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