PHARMACOLOGY QUIZZES 40 | Multiple Choice Questions| Medical Exam Preparations

 01. Beta-Blocker drug is following?

A. Atropine
B. Metoprolol
C. Mecamylamine
D. Atracurium
E. Tacrine

Answer: B. Metoprolol


02. Which one of the following drugs is an adrenergic antagonist Alpha Blocker drug?
A. Atropine
B. Benztropine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Succinylcholine
E. Tamsulosin

Answer: E. Tamsulosin

03. Cimetidine is used to treat one of the following diseases?
A. Viral infection 
B. Blood pressure  
C. Diabetes 
D. Stomach Ulcer  
E. Malaria  

Answer: D. Stomach Ulcer  

04. The following drug is a peripheral dopamine-1 receptor agonist?
A. Fenoldopam
B. Hydralazine
C. Minoxidil 
D. Alpha-Methyldopa


Answer: A. Fenoldopam 

05. Propranolol is used to treat one of the following diseases?
A. Viral infection 
B. High Blood pressure  
C. Diabetes 
D. Stomach Ulcer  
E. Malaria  

Answer: B. High Blood pressure   

06. Which of the following drug belongs to the Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
A. Abacavir
B. Delavirdine
C. Atazanavir
D. Maraviroc
E. Indanyl carbenicillin

Answer:  B. Delavirdine

07. Which one of the following drugs belongs to ANTIMETABOLITES drugs for Cancer?
A. Gemcitabine
B. Capreomycin
C. Lamivudine 
D. Ezetimibe
E. Indanyl carbenicillin 

Answer: A. Gemcitabine

08. Which of the following drug is a part of drugs for subcutaneous and systemic mycoses?
A. Ibandronate
B.  Voriconazole
C. Capecitabine
D. Miconazole
E. Naftifine

Answer: B. Voriconazole

  

09. One of the following statements is false about the functions of epinephrine?
A. Increased blood supply to the kidney
B.  Strengthen the contractility of the myocardium
C. Increase in systolic blood pressure
D. Bronchodilation
E. Hyperglycemic effect

Answer: A. increase blood supply to kidney

10. Action of incretin hormone GLP-1 is following except?
A. slow gastric emptying 
B.  Enhance appetite 
C. Increase beta-cell growth 
D. Inhibit inappropriate glucagon secretion 
E. Increase glucose-dependent insulin secretion 


Answer: B. Enhance appetite 
In fact, it suppresses appetite.

11. Amylin consecrated with insulin has the following actions except?
A. Suppress appetite 
B. Delayed gastric emptying time
C. Decrease postprandial glucagon secretion 
D. Increase beta-cell growth 

Answer: D. Increase beta-cell growth 

12. Which one of the following drugs has irritation of the respiratory tract and should avoid in severe reactive asthma?
A. Zanamivir 
B. Oseltamivir
C. Amantadine
D. Rimantadine 
E. None of these 

Answer: A. Zanamivir 
It's not active orally so administered via inhalation. Causes irritation Because it's administered directly to the airways 

13. Blanching and sloughing of skin is the adverse effect of one of the following Direct acting adrenergic agonists?
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Isoproterenol
D. Dopamine
E. Dobutamine

Answer: B. Norepinephrine

80% Epinephrine & 20% Norepinephrine released from adrenal medulla.

14. Phenylephrine has the least affinity for following adrenoceptors type?
A. α1 Receptors
B. α2 Receptors
C. α1 & B1 Receptors
D. Both A & B
E. All of these 

Answer: A. α2 Receptors

15. Autonomic nervous system is the part of?
A. Brain
B. Spinal cord 
C. Somatic nervous system 
D. Peripheral nervous system 
E. Central nervous system 


Answer: D. Peripheral nervous system

16. In high doses, Aspirin lacks anti-platelet activity by which of the following phenomena
a. Stimulates thromboxanes
b. Stimulates prostacyclins
c. Inhibits prostacyclins
d. Stimulates leukotrienes
e. Inhibits leukotrienes


Answer: c. Inhibit prostacyclins

17. Drugs that are taken orally must first cross several biological membranes (diffusion barriers) before they reach their target receptors inside the body. Which of the following drug characteristics would best facilitate this process?
A. glucuronidated form
B. ionized form
C. protein-bound
D. quaternary charge
E. unionized form


Answer: E. unionized form
The unionized form of a drug will diffuse more easily through hydrophobic lipid bilayers compared to charged/ionized forms. Drugs that are bound to proteins or drugs that have been undergone a hepatic transformation to a glucuronidated metabolite will also be unable to diffuse across tissue barriers and will be more readily excreted into the urine by the kidney.

18. What is the antidote to organophosphates toxicity?

A. Dimercaprol
B. Atropine
C. Pralidoxime 
D. B & C 
E. All of above

Answer: D. B & C

Atropine is required to reverse the peripheral muscarinic effect.

19. What is the antidote to Atenolol?

A. Pyridoxine
B. atropine
C. Flumazenil
D. Glucagon

Answer: D. Glucagon

20. Which of the following drug has Ocular effects like mydriasis and fixed far vision?
a) Mecamylamine
b) Neostigmine
c) Phentolamine
d) Phenylephrine
e) Timolol

Answer: a) Mecamylamine

It's a selective ganglion receptors blocker drug.

21. Which of the following antibiotics exhibits concentration-dependent killing?

A. Clindamycin

B. Linezolid

C. Vancomycin

D. Daptomycin

Answer: D.  Daptomycin (Also Aminoglycosides e.g Tobramycin, Gentamicin, Amikacin, Neomycin, Streptomycin) exhibit concentration dependent killing. Lippincot 28.5 image 

D. Clindamycin, linezolid, and vancomycin exhibit time-dependent killing, while daptomycin works best when administered in a fashion that optimizes concentration dependent killing.

In contrast, beta lactamase, glycopeptides, macrolides, clindamycin and linezolid don't exhibit concentration dependent killing, they are time dependent killing concentration independent. 

22. Which of the following antibiotics exhibits a long postan-

tibiotic effect that permits once-daily dosing?

A. Gentamicin

B. Penicillin G

C. Vancomycin

D. Aztreonam

Answer: A. Gentamicin (Aminoglycosides) 

Also fluoroquinolones exhibit long post antibiotics effect PAE. They require only one dose per day particularly against gram negative bacteria. 

PAE? 

Have effects of microbial growth suppression even after level of antibiotics have fallen below the MIC. 

A. Aminoglycosides, including gentamicin possess a long postantibiotic effect, especially when given 28 a high dose every 24 hours. Penicilin G, clindamycin, and vancomycin have a relatively short postantibiotic effec and require dosing that maintains concentrations above the MIC for a longer portion of the dosing interval.

23. A 58-year-old man with a history of hepatitis C, cirrhosis, and ascites presents with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Which of the following antibiotics requires close monitoring and dosing adjustment in this patient given his liver disease?

A. Penicillin G

B. Tobramycin

C. Erythromycin

D. Vancomycin

Answer: C. Erythromycin 

Erythromycin is metabolized by the liver and should be used with caution in patients with hepatic impairment. Penicillin G, tobramycin, and vancomycin are primarily eliminated by the kidneys.

Penicillin G(benzylpenicillin) and V are obtained from fermentation of the fungus Penicillium chrysogenum.  penicillin G is five to ten times greater than that of Penicillin V against both Neisseria spp. and certain anaerobes.